Any can calculate odds when you straight bet, one number to its trip to spin #179.
What is the % to obtain at least +1 within the trip from spin #1 to #179. In any + you stop.
Minimum + equals 1, maximum equals 35.
Questions welcome.
thanks in advance.
Ok, either the whisky i drank last night hasn't yet been absorbed and emptied out of my system fully, or I don't understand a single word of your post?!![]()
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Originally Posted by Dice Man
Reading this question made me relive nightmares I've had about skipping algebra class all year and having to take a final exam at the last minute.
I just want to know what happens if you play on a single number until you get profit or arrive to spin #179 with losses.
How many times comes profits and losses?
It takes a math-boy.
I play a system related to the question.
You know, english is not my mother language, sorry
best regards
I don't know what you mean by "spin #179" unless it is related to this system you play. Regardless of whether it's spin #1 or spin #25,000, the odds of hitting a single number is 1 in 37 on a single zero wheel and 1 in 38 on a wheel with 0 and 00. Each spin is new and unrelated to the last spin, so these odds don't change from spin to spin. Your profit is only as good as your luck in hitting your single number more often than not before you run out of money.
We know that in every spin you have 1/37 but:
If you´ve ever seen large actual you could see for instance that the odds the hit within the first 35 spins at least once is 61.67%. The chance to get exactly 1 hit is 37.26%, to hit more than once 24.40 and the chance to sleep all the 35 spins is 38.32%.
If the moderator allows me to show a link you could see the numbers.
The chance to get 5 hits or more within 179 spins is 53.32%
Just pick any number and see what happens.
The system I play has 2 modalities, one with high risk, high bankroll, and cold blood with more profits and the other less risky and more greedy.
My purpose is to test it, the more the merrier. I ´ve been playing so for several months.
I´m not telling you it´s the holy grail but it has its good points.
As I´m not a math-boy I need the % of my questions to check my results.
best regards
Right. From the first bit it definitely sounds like you're talking about Roulette (You didn't say).
But after that it's all gobbledy-gook.
Assuming a 1 zero roulette wheel:-
The chance of hitting 1 number in 35 spins is 35/37 = 94.5946% (Not 61.67%).
What "sleeping all 35 spins" means is a total mystery to me...
And what is a "large actual"?
From your original question; assuming you are flat-betting one number all the way through the 179 spins - you will lose 2.7027% of your all bets (on average).
KK
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Hi KK, you´re wrong, the % to sleep all 35 spins is 38.32%.
Of course I´m talking about 1 zero roulette.
A large actual means at least a millon one.
Ok, you´ll lose 2.7027% in a long run but what we use as a tool is the dispersion when you straight bet.
More than 29 of the 37 numbers of a 179-spin-actual will get profit on average, check it if you can.
The profits are from 1 to 35(17.50 on average).
What is the most difficult task is to calculate the losses.
You can lose 179 units when you sleep for 179 spins(0.75%), -143, -107, -71 or -35.
What I need to know is how much the losses are when you lose.
best regards.
Fruity loser... Poker loser... Online casino winner!
No-Deposit Bonuses: Get your MONEY FOR NOTHING and your CHIPS FOR FREE!
(Also 150+ other reputable casinos with bonus offers sorted from best to worst).
Roulette Lover's Guide: Where to play with chips from 5c up, spin with no bets and allowed in Bonus WR.
One unit, flatbetting until profit(from +1 to +35, any) or 179 spins(-35 to -179), what happens first.
You play on a single number.
Sellection criteria and progression next post.
What scarcely know is that you lose 179 units once every 5.2 times you play and your % to get at least +1 is 79.7%.
best regards
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